Psychology Quiz Question 1

Psychology Quiz

Question 1


As compared to more traditional, one-on-one and face-to-face assessments, a disadvantage of CAPA is that it typically deprives the assessor of the opportunity to:

a. Have a Bowflex workout during the assessment.
b. Make certain that test forms can be kept secure.
c. Observe the test-taker’s test-taking behavior.
d. Tailor the test’s content to the responses.

2 points

Question 2


Which of the following would probably provide the best information about trends in psychological testing and assessment?

a. Test critiques.
b. Journal articles.
c. Test manuals.

2 points

Question 3


How did the work of Wundt differ from that of Galton, Binet, and James McKeen Cattell?

a. Wundt used standardized psychological tests.
b. Wundt utilized humans and not animal research subjects.
c. Wundt focused on how individuals were the same rather than different.
d. Wundt focused on how individuals were different rather than the same.

2 points

Question 4


According to the Standards for Educational and Psychological Tests and Manuals, the responsibility for the use of psychological tests is that of:

a. Professionals with the highest academic degree in psychology.
b. Professionals with the necessary training and experience.
c. Professionals who have state certification to administer a particular test.
d. Professionals who have received online certification in test administration.

2 points

Question 5


Which case resulted in the ruling that intelligence tests could not be used to place Black children in special classes in California?

a. Hobson v. Hanson (1967).
b. Larry P. v. Riles (1979).
c. Debra P. v. Turlington (1981).
d. Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971).

2 points

Question 6


Users of psychological tests are frequently tempted to treat ordinal data as if it were interval data. This is the case because of the:

a. Difficulties that would be encountered if the data were treated as ratio data.
b. Frequent need to do more than simply rank order test scores.
c. Unwritten rule that exists pertaining to the equal intervals between points measured.
d. Added flexibility of interval level data for statistical manipulation.

2 points

Question 7


The fact that a test score that has a normal distribution test score has a normal distribution:

a. Suggests that the test is biased.
b. Makes it relatively harder to assume that the test measures what it was intended to measure.
c. Makes it unlikely that the test is suitable for use with populations with psychological disturbances.
d. Makes the interpretation of test scores simpler than would be the case if the test score had a non-normal distribution.

2 points

Question 8


Referring to a psychological trait as a construct means that it:

a. Is an idea whose time has come, gone, and come back again.
b. Has few practical real-world applications and is only of interest from an academic standpoint.
c. Was developed by naturalistic observation rather than rational, systematic theorizing.
d. Is an informed, scientific concept developed to describe or explain behavior.

2 points

Question 9


A test that yields information about a test-taker’s relative standing in a group is referred to as:

a. Criterion-referenced.
b. Norm-referenced.
c. Standard-referenced.
d. None of these.

2 points

Question 10


Which type of reliability estimate would be appropriate only when evaluating the reliability of a test that measures a trait that is relatively stable over time?

a. Parallel-forms.
b. Alternate-forms.
c. Test-retest.
d. Split-half.

2 points

Question 11


What term refers to the degree of correlation between all the items on a scale?

a. Inter-item homogeneity.
b. Inter-item consistency.
c. Inter-item heterogeneity.
d. Parallel-form reliability.

2 points

Question 12


Item response theory (IRT) focuses on:

a. Circumstances under which the test was developed.
b. How a particular test was administered.
c. The individual items of a test.
d. Reasons for delay on one line of the New York City subway system.

2 points

Question 13


In classical test theory, an observed score on an ability test is presumed to represent the test-taker’s:

a. True score.
b. True score less the variance.
c. True score combined with extraneous factors.
d. The test-taker’s true score and error.

2 points

Question 14


The form of criterion-related validity that reflects the degree to which a test score is correlated with a criterion measure obtained at the same time that the test score was obtained is known as:

a. Predictive validity.
b. Construct validity.
c. Concurrent validity.
d. Content validity.

2 points

Question 15


In studies that indicate that Aatention deficit disorder occurs in approximately 2 percent of the population, the 2 percent represents the __________ for the disorder.

a. Hit rate.
b. Base rate.
c. Miss rate.
d. Sample.

2 points

Question 16


Each of the three approaches to validity assessment in the trinitarian model should be thought of as:

a. Mutually exclusive as evidence of a test’s validity with any one source necessary and sufficient for demonstrating a test’s validity.
b. One type of evidence that, with others, contributes to a judgment concerning the validity of a test.
c. Insufficient either by themselves or together with the other two to demonstrate the validity of a test.
d. None of these.

2 points

Question 17


“It’s a measure of validity that arrived at by a comprehensive analysis of how scores on the test relate to other test scores.” This statement is a reference to:

a. Face validity.
b. Content validity.
c. The Trinitarian index.
d. Construct validity.

2 points

Question 18


If undertaken for the purpose of evaluating a particular intervention, a utility analysis can be helpful in making decisions about whether:

a. One training program is preferable to another training program.
b. Any intervention is better than no intervention.
c. One tool of assessment is more practical than another.
d. All of these.

2 points

Question 19


An empirical standard used to divide a group of data into two or more distinct categories describes a:

a. Cut score.
b. Predictive yield.
c. Norm-referenced test.
d. Hit rate.

2 points

Question 20


Test items that contain alternatives with five points ranging from strongly agree to strongly disagree are characterized as using this approach to scaling:

a. Guttman scaling.
b. Likert scaling.
c. Nielson scaling.
d. Opinion scaling.

2 points

Question 21


A developer is interested in deriving an index of the difficulty of the average item for his math test. As his consultant on test development, you advise him that this index could be obtained by:

a. Identifying the item deemed to be average in difficulty and then deriving an item-difficulty index for that item.
b. Averaging the item-difficulty indices for all test items and then dividing by the total number of items on the test.
c. Dividing the total number of items on the test by the average item-difficulty index.
d. Asking that very same question to a more knowledgeable test development consultant.

2 points

Question 22


When testing is conducted by means of a computer within a CAT context, it means that:

a. A test-taker’s response to one item may automatically trigger what item will be presented next.
b. Testing may be terminated based on some preset number of consecutive item failures.
c. Testing may be terminated based on some pre-set, maximum number of items being administered.
d. All of these.

2 points

Question 23


Item analysis is conducted to evaluate

a. Item reliability.
b. Item validity.
c. Item difficulty.
d. All of these.

2 points

Question 24


The term cross-battery assessment refers to:

a. The selective use of subtests from different test batteries.
b. The use of multiple test batteries in assessment.
c. The use of culturally responsive tools of assessment.
d. Using physical tests in combination with psychological tests.

2 points

Question 25


Which of the following best characterizes the basis of CHC theory?

a. Practical relevance.
b. Factor analysis.
c. Intuitive beliefs.
d. The published writings of hundreds of independent practitioners.

2 points

Question 26


Culture-specific and culture-reduced tests have been shown to have:

a. Limited value in predicting educational achievement.
b. Significant value in predicting educational achievement.
c. Have little application in industrial and organizational settings.
d. Significant value in predicting vocational success.

2 points

Question 27


The magnitude of the Flynn effect is dependent most on:

a. The population on whom the test was normed.
b. The model of intelligence employed by the test developers.
c. When the test was normed.
d. The methods used by the test developers to norm the test.

2 points

Question 28


According to Piaget, a form of cognitive structure or organization is referred to as:

a. A set.
b. A construct.
c. A pattern.
d. A schema.

2 points

Question 29


Validity of short forms may be reduced because fewer items:

a. Mean that the test will not be used as often as the longer form.
b. Lowes test utility, which negatively impacts validity.
c. Mean that the test can only be used for screening purposes.
d. Lower test reliability, which negatively impacts validity.

2 points

Question 30


The deviation IQ reflects a comparison of the performance of the individual with the performance of others:

a. In the entire standardization sample.
b. In the same grade in the standardization sample.
c. Of the same age in the standardization sample.
d. In the same grade and of the same age in the standardization sample.

2 points

Question 31


Contributing greatly to the success of the WPPSI was the fact that this test:

a. Represented a downward extension of the WISC.
b. Was the test of choice with gifted preschoolers.
c. Aadequately represented minorities in the standardization sample.
d. Contained many items reflecting the CHC theory of intelligence.

2 points

Question 32


A ratio IQ is calculated as follows:

a. Mental age multiplied by chronological age, divided by 100.
b. Chronological age divided by mental age, multiplied by 100.
c. Mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100.
d. Deviation IQ divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100.

2 points

Question 33


RtI is said to be multilevel in nature because there are at least three levels of intervention. As noted in the text, these three levels feature instruction administered

a. 1) By parents, 2) by teachers, and 3) by tutors providing individualized instruction.
b. 1) By school officials, 2) by special educators, and 3) by individual tutors.
c. 1) In the regular classroom, 2) in small groups, and 3) in individualized instruction.
d. 1) In a special education class, 2) individualized, and 3) at-home by parents.

2 points

Question 34


Aptitude tests measure:

a. The cognitive abilities that intelligence tests measure.
b. Learning that has occurred as a result of exposure to a relatively defined learning experience.
c. Learning that has occurred informally through life experiences.
d. Learning that has occurred through formal structured input.

2 points

Question 35


Curriculum-based assessment refers to the assessment of:

a. Material that is taught in the classroom.
b. Knowledge as applied to the real world.
c. Knowledge transferred from one area to another.
d. Government-mandated topic areas.

2 points

Question 36


A key definitional difference between the terms personality trait and personality statehas to do with:

a. The extent to which personality is viewed as a physical attribute.
b. How stable over time the characteristic is exhibited.
c. Whether or not the characteristic is subject to a halo effect.
d. The motivation of the person or persons doing the rating.

2 points

Question 37


A culturally sensitive psychological assessment includes sensitivity to which of the following?

a. Acculturation and language.
b. Values and worldview.
c. Personal identity.
d. All of these.

2 points

Question 38


Word association tests such as that developed by Jung:

a. Are usually based on cognitive theories of personality.
b. Are based on the premise that certain key words represent areas of conflict.
c. Utilize only traumatic stimulus words, in an attempt to diagnose associative disturbances.
d. Employ normative databases with samples matched to U.S. census data.

2 points

Question 39


Based on several review articles cited in the text, what conclusion can reasonably be made about the Rorschach test and its contribution to psychological assessment?

a. Rorschach-based interpretations represent the essence of “scientifically informed psychological assessment.”
b. Rorschach-based interpretations have little reliability and even less validity.
c. There exists a mixture of favorable and unfavorable reviews of the Rorschach’s contributions to psychological assessment.
d. None of these.

2 points

Question 40


Identification of the antecedents and consequences of behavior is a routine part of:

a. An analogue analysis.
b. A functional analysis.
c. A psychic analysis.
d. Behavioral determination.

2 points

Question 41


Forensic psychology is different from clinical psychology because in forensic psychology:

a. The clinician’s client may not be the assessee.
b. When the assessee is in an adversarial relationship with the assessor, the assessee may not be truthful.
c. The clinician may be called on to offer recommendations that run counter to the welfare of the assessee.
d. All of these.

2 points

Question 42


The Barnum effect in psychological report writing refers to:

a. Very technical jargon that is difficult for lay readers of the report to understand or interpret.
b. Cconflicting statements about the person within the same report.
c. Statements that are prejudicial in nature.
d. Vague and general statements that could be applied to most people in many situations.

2 points

Question 43


Which of the following is not a category listed in your text in the description of a mental status examination?

a. Sensorium.
b. Socioeconomic status.
c. Memory.
d. Appearance.

2 points

Question 44


The mental status examination used as part of the neuropsychological evaluation:

a. Is exactly the same as a mental status examination used during a clinical or counseling assessment.
b. Will typically delve into specific areas of interest more extensively than the one used as part of a clinical or counseling assessment.
c. Typically includes the administration of an intelligence test.
d. Typically includes the administration of a neuropsychologically oriented adjective checklist.

2 points

Question 45


Most neuropsychologists prefer which of the following when conducting a neuropsychological evaluation?

a. A prepackaged neuropsychological battery.
b. A flexible neuropsychological battery.
c. The Halstead-Reitan.
d. The Luria-Nebraska.

2 points

Question 46


The study of neuropsychology is best characterized as the study of:

a. Nervous system/cognition relationships.
b. Brain/behavior relationships.
c. Stimulus/response relationships.
d. Physical/platonic relationships.

2 points

Question 47


Your ability to remember all of the different types of reliability is an example of __________ memory.

a. Procedural.
b. Declarative.
c. Short-term.
d. Sheer endurance.

2 points

Question 48


The Civil Rights Act of 1991 stated that tests like the General Aptitude Test Battery:

a. Must no longer be administered.
b. Must produce equal mean scores for all races.
c. Could no longer be race-normed.
d. Violate the civil rights of minority groups.

2 points

Question 49


Which of the following is true of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI)?

a. Despite weak psychometric qualities, the test remains popular.
b. The test is really not a measure of type in the strict sense of that word.
c. The test has strong validity.
d. The test is widely used as an adjunct to random drug testing.

2 points

Question 50


Motivation research includes:

a. Focus groups.
b. Individual interviews.
c. Both A and B.
d. None of these.



"Do you have an upcoming essay or assignment due?

If yes Order Similar Paper